Watch this video http://uk.youtube.com/watch?v=dgLv9iEU-94&feature=related
and then read this.
This is a columns two balls in one hand trick + some weird movements in the other hand.
Basically this comes from 'fake' which is the two-up-one-up trick where one of the balls in the two-up is held. Practice 'fake' first.
In this trick there is a mechanical 'beat' which makes everything orderly. This 'beat' is regulated by each throw of the hand with two balls. Each move of the other hand is regulated by this 'beat'.
Follow this guide very technically.
Remember, hand 1 will be doing columns a lot. Hand 2 does weird stuff that makes up the trick. When I say do a column, it means do one column throw.
Throw one ball up.
1. When the one-up ball comes down in the center, do a column with hand 1, throwing the new ball on the outside. And move one ball up (like in 'fake') with hand 2.
2. Then with hand 1 do another column. At the same time, according to this 'beat', move hand 2 across to your other side.
3. Drop the ball with hand 2, and do yet another column with this ball. But since this dropped ball from hand 2 is a new ball in the column, it replaces another ball in the columns. This means there is a spare ball floating around. Swipe down to catch it!
At this point there should be one ball coming down. You know what to do... Go to step 1...
Wednesday, 14 May 2008
Thursday, 17 January 2008
An example of simultaneous equations.
In an atom, there is proton and a neutron.
In protons and neutrons, there are quarks. There are different kinds of quarks, one up and one down. These carry the electrical charge.
A proton has a charge of +1.
A neutron has a charge of 0.
In a proton there are two up quarks, and one down quark.
In a neutron there are two down quarks, and one up quark.
By using simultaneous equations, one can find the charge of each quark.
2u + d = 1 (proton)
u + 2d = 0 (neutron)
double the neutron equation, to get
2u + 4d = 0
take the other equation...
2u + 4d = 0
-2u + d = 1
3d = -1
d = -1/3
so a down quark has a negative 1/3 charge.
Take this value and put it in an equation...
2u + d = 1
2u + - 1/3 = 1
2u = 1 and 1/3 = 4/3
u = 4/3 divided by 2.
u = 2/3
So an up quark has a positive 2/3 charge.
up = 2/3
down = -1/3
You can substitute these values to test the validity.
In protons and neutrons, there are quarks. There are different kinds of quarks, one up and one down. These carry the electrical charge.
A proton has a charge of +1.
A neutron has a charge of 0.
In a proton there are two up quarks, and one down quark.
In a neutron there are two down quarks, and one up quark.
By using simultaneous equations, one can find the charge of each quark.
2u + d = 1 (proton)
u + 2d = 0 (neutron)
double the neutron equation, to get
2u + 4d = 0
take the other equation...
2u + 4d = 0
-2u + d = 1
3d = -1
d = -1/3
so a down quark has a negative 1/3 charge.
Take this value and put it in an equation...
2u + d = 1
2u + - 1/3 = 1
2u = 1 and 1/3 = 4/3
u = 4/3 divided by 2.
u = 2/3
So an up quark has a positive 2/3 charge.
up = 2/3
down = -1/3
You can substitute these values to test the validity.
Why does 1/0 make infinity?
If 1 divided by 0 makes infinity, it means infinity times 0 is one. But zero doesn't add up to anything. Or does it?
Divide 1 by 3, using long multiplication. It will come to 1/3, or 0.333333333333333.....
note that the line of threes is infinite.
Now multiply this by 3.
1/3 times 3 equals....
1
0.333333333333333........... times 3 equals...
0.999999999999999............
But wait! It should be 1 ! Why?
Because 1/3 and 0.33333... are equal. Times three, they both should equal one.
So that means 0.999999..... is actually 1 !
Now back to the first part. Why does infinity times 0 = 1?
This is because 1-0.999999999999999999999.... = 0
(remember, 0.999999999...... is 1.)
But 1-0.99999....= 0.000......1
This means that 0 and 0.000000......1 are the same.
So if you multiply that tiny 0.000000....1 by infinity, by the power of infinity, it will be 1.
Hi. James Dai
Divide 1 by 3, using long multiplication. It will come to 1/3, or 0.333333333333333.....
note that the line of threes is infinite.
Now multiply this by 3.
1/3 times 3 equals....
1
0.333333333333333........... times 3 equals...
0.999999999999999............
But wait! It should be 1 ! Why?
Because 1/3 and 0.33333... are equal. Times three, they both should equal one.
So that means 0.999999..... is actually 1 !
Now back to the first part. Why does infinity times 0 = 1?
This is because 1-0.999999999999999999999.... = 0
(remember, 0.999999999...... is 1.)
But 1-0.99999....= 0.000......1
This means that 0 and 0.000000......1 are the same.
So if you multiply that tiny 0.000000....1 by infinity, by the power of infinity, it will be 1.
Hi. James Dai
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